From: Paul S. Dixon (dixonps@juno.com)
Date: Tue Dec 23 1997 - 04:49:28 EST
On Mon, 22 Dec 1997 15:00:27 +0000 "John M. Moe"
<John.M.Moe-1@tc.umn.edu> writes:
>
>
>Paul S. Dixon wrote:
>
>> On Mon, 22 Dec 97 12:33:12 Ben Crick <ben.crick@argonet.co.uk>
>writes:
>
>> SNIP
>> >
>> > The Greek genitive is the nearest available equivalent to the Hebrew
>> > (Aramaic) "construct relationship". If we translate EI hUIOS EI TOU
>> >QEOU back into Hebrew we get `iM BeN-Ha'eLoHiYM 'aTTaH.
>> >/BeN-Ha'eLoHiYM/ is a unit, and is definite; it contains the definite
>> >article Ha >embedded after the maqqeph (hyphen). This is precisely
where
>> >we find it in the >Greek translation hUIOS... TOU QEOU. There cannot
be
>> >an "extra" definite article with hUOIS, because there cannot be an
extra >> >> >definite article with
>> >BeN-, as it is a noun in the Construct State, *followed by* the
Definite
>> >Article.
>>
>
>NOW PAUL
>
>> It seems your translation back into the Hebrew assumes the
>> definiteness of hUIOS. If so, then this is begging the question.
>>
>
>If I understand Ben he is not assuming the definiteness of hUIOS, but
>assuming hUIOS... TOU QEOU to be a Greek representation of the Hebrew
>construct in which both nouns are definite although the the definite
>article occurs only on the second, Heb. Ha'eLoHiYM, Gr. TOU QEOU.
>
>John M. Moe
>
The question I have then is, if hUIOS were qualitative, how would this
have been
represented by the Hebrew? The same way? Differently? If the same way,
then his argument fails, because `iM BeN-Ha'eLoHiYM 'aTTaH could have be
taken either way. On the other hand, if a qualitative hUIOS were
translated back into the Hebrew differently, then who is to say this is
not the correct Hebrew text? The point is, we do not have the original
Hebrew text, assuming there was such a text, and it would still be
begging to question to argue for the definiteness of hUIOS because of
such an alleged Hebrew original.
Sincerely,
Paul Dixon
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