From: Carl W. Conrad (cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu)
Date: Wed Dec 31 1997 - 07:20:51 EST
At 7:35 PM -0600 12/30/97, Jonathan Robie wrote:
>Several grammars make the point that Greek often, but not necessarily,
>omits the article for abstract nouns, e.g.
>
>Gal 5:22 hO DE KARPOS TOU PNEUMATOS ESTIN AGAPH XARA EIRHNH...
>
>It seems to me that English does the same thing here, translating "love,
>joy, peace...", and not "a love, a joy, a peace...". Is it accurate to say
>that *both* English and Greek often omit the definite article for abstract
>nouns, even though a definite meaning is intended?
>
>I assume that the qualitative interpretation of this would be "lovingness,
>joyfulness, peacefulness", and is not really an accurate translation.
>
>Am I anywhere close?
I think you're right on target. I'd add that I think it may not be just a
matter of abstract nouns but in an asyndetic series of nouns, i.e. nouns in
sequence without conjunctional links. Cf.:
1 Cor 13:13 NUNI DE MENEI PISTIS, ELPIS, AGAPH, TA TRIA TAUTA ...
or the sequence in Rom 1:29ff. which begins: PEPLHRWMENOUS PASHi ADIKIAi
PONHRIAi PLEONEXIAi KAKIAi, MESTOUS FQONOU ERIDOS DOLOU KAKOHQEIAS,
YIQURISTAS KATALALOUS QEOSTUGEIS ...
I think other passages could readily be cited but these came to my mind at
once. I think this is basicaly rhetorical and that one sees omission of the
article with these generalizing nouns particularly in asyndetic series.
I should add that I've read Paul Dixon's response to this question, and
although he makes some valid points otherwise about the grammar of the
article, I don't think the normal grammar (or logic either, in these
instances) is the explanatory factor, but rather a rhetorical process.
Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics/Washington University
One Brookings Drive/St. Louis, MO, USA 63130/(314) 935-4018
Home: 7222 Colgate Ave./St. Louis, MO 63130/(314) 726-5649
cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu OR cconrad@yancey.main.nc.us
WWW: http://www.artsci.wustl.edu/~cwconrad/
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