From: Michael S. Olszta (msolszta@ici.net)
Date: Thu Jan 08 1998 - 16:52:04 EST
I've been reading through some of the posts on translation and how the
theology of a translator may affect his translating. An internet
contact and I have had a very heated discussion going on as to the
merits of the King James Bible. He believes the translators were quite
biased in certain places that seem to disagree with his understanding of
the New Testament. I, on the other hand, believe that the English text
is perfect as it stands BUT in cases of pure misunderstanding of the
English, I have no trouble with going back to a Hebrew or Greek lexicon,
concordance, grammar, etc. to elucidate the meaning of the English.
The main reason I subscribed to B-Greek was at his bidding so that we
could read the opinions of those who obviously spend a great deal of
their time in studying the Greek New Testament and compare notes on
various passages where to him the King James Bible is absolutely wrong
and to me there just needs further study to understand the text as it
stands.
May I ask you folks one question:
Is it possible for a Bible translation to be THEOPNEUSTOS or is it only
possible that the original words penned by the writers of the New
Testament could be so? Please give your reasons why or why not.
If 2Tim 3:16 (GTR)"pasa grafh qeopneustoV kai wfelimoV proV didaskalian
proV elegcon proV epanorqwsin proV paideian thn en dikaiosunh
17 ina artioV h o tou qeou anqrwpoV proV pan ergon agaqon exhrtismenoV"
how could such only apply to the original language seeing such would not
be profitable to anyone except one who could read and/or hear and
understand Greek? (My apology for the variations in transliteration
here. It looks as though my Greek testament makes final sigma into a
"V" and theta into a "q".
Your input is greatly appreciated.
Michael Olszta
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