From: Jack Vogt (jvogt@dawson.net)
Date: Fri Jan 16 1998 - 14:51:30 EST
On January 15, 1998 10:20 PM
Chris Stanley wrote:
> The question raised by Jack Vogt regarding Phil 2:6-11 is a perfect
> example of this problem. Does Paul "intend" to refer here to Isaiah 42:8
> or not? How can we know? The persistent question of when or if we can
> discern authorial intent comes fully to the fore in passages like this.
It
> is hard to see what basis we might have for judging in a case like this.
>
> On a related point, Carl might be interested in the argument advanced by
> Dietrich-Alex Koch in his magisterial work, Die Schrift als Zeuge des
> Evangeliums (Mohr, 1986), that the original Greek manuscripts of the NT
> contained the Tetragrammaton in pasages like this. (Yes, I said NT
> manuscripts!) The same phenomenon can be seen in the Qumran texts.
> Unfortunately, I don't have Koch's book handy to rehearse his argument,
> but the section is clearly marked in his Table of Contents. I don't
> believe I've heard this issue discussed on B-Greek before. Any takers?
Are there any NT texts availabe that actually contian the Tetragrammaton?
and if so where can they be found ?
The other thing that I need help with is the meaning of OMEITAI ,which is
found in LXX Isa 45:23 and listed as a variant in Vaticanus. I have checked
my lexicons and have not been able to find it.
Wishing you the best:
Jack Vogt
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