From: Steven Cox (scox@ns1.chinaonline.com.cn.net)
Date: Sat Jan 31 1998 - 00:22:26 EST
Hello again Daniel
That was a stupid question from me wasnât it?
Christ would have used the middle aorist subjunctive and said
MH MOU hAYHi*, OUPW GAR ANABEBHKA PROS TON PATERA...
(If I understand the following at least)
Present imperative singular = donât keep touching
John 20:17 - MH MOU hAPTOU
2Co 6:17 - KAI AKAQARTOU MH hAPTESQE
Lam4:14 MH hAPTESQE
Aorist subjunctive = donât touch once
Job 1:12 ALL' AUTOU MH hAYHi
Gen3:3 OUDE MH hAYHSQE AUTOU
1Ch16:22 MH hAYHSQE TWN CRISTWN MOU
Ps105:15 MH hAYHSQE TWN CRISTWN MOU
Isaiah 52:11 KAI AKAQARTOU MH hAYHSQE
S.
At 15:51 98/01/30 +0100, Daniel Ria–o wrote:
> I think that we must distinguish what is relevant in the syntax and
>what is not, to arrive to an acceptable translation. IMO, the key to the
>first part of the complex sentence is the nuances of meaning expressed by
>the verb: Jesus is addressing a command in the present tense, indicating
>durative action:
I must admit that, in my general ignorance, I find this more
convincing than lexical reference to classical uses of
hAPTW. In what tense then would Christ say the alternative:
"do not touch me" (non-durative) if that is what he had really
meant?
Cheers
Steven
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