From: Andrew Kulikovsky (anku@celsiustech.com.au)
Date: Thu Feb 12 1998 - 18:08:16 EST
-----Original Message-----
From: GregStffrd@aol.com [SMTP:GregStffrd@aol.com]
Sent: Friday, February 13, 1998 6:26 AM
To: mjoseph@terminal.cz
Cc: b-greek-digest@virginia.edu
Subject: Re: John 1:1
Mark:
See Gen. 1:1. Whether or not the LXX has translated the words
*correctly* is not important. The fact is, that Gen. 1:1 was
translated
that way. When John uses that phrase, EN ARKHi, he is bringing
to the
mind of his Jewish (Christian) reader the time to which Gen.
1:1 refers,
which is why I made an (apparently inappropriate) comment as to
what the
Hebrew of Gen. 1:1 means.>>
Again, you are begging the question. What evidence do you have
to support your
view of an "absolute beginning of time"? If the context reveals
the meaning of
words, then Genesis 1:1 refers to the creation of the physical
universe, as it
does several other times in the Bible.
[Andrew]
On day 1, God created light and according to general relativity,
he would have also created time. Hence "the beginning" is the beginning
of all time.
cheers,
Andrew
-- Andrew S. Kulikovsky B.App.Sc(Hons) MACS Software Engineer CelsiusTech Australia Endeavour House,Technology Park, The Levels, S.A. 5095 Phone : +61 8 8343 3837 (Direct) Fax : +61 8 8343 3778 Email : anku@celsiustech.com.au"God is dead." -- Nietzsche "Nietzsche is dead." -- God
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