From: GregStffrd@aol.com
Date: Thu Feb 12 1998 - 18:59:44 EST
Andrew wrote:
<< > Mark:
> See Gen. 1:1. Whether or not the LXX has translated the words
> *correctly* is not important. The fact is, that Gen. 1:1 was
> translated
> that way. When John uses that phrase, EN ARKHi, he is bringing to the
>
> mind of his Jewish (Christian) reader the time to which Gen. 1:1
> refers,
> which is why I made an (apparently inappropriate) comment as to what
> the
> Hebrew of Gen. 1:1 means.>>
>
> Again, you are begging the question. What evidence do you have to
> support your
> view of an "absolute beginning of time"? If the context reveals the
> meaning of
> words, then Genesis 1:1 refers to the creation of the physical
> universe, as it
> does several other times in the Bible.
>
[Andrew]
On day 1, God created light and according to general relativity,
he would have also created time. Hence "the beginning" is the beginning
of all time.
cheers,
Andrew>.
No, it would only refer to the beginning of time as counted from a _physical_
perspective. It says nothing about "time" as it relates to the spiritual
realm.
Greg Stafford
University of Wisconsin
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