From: JPDow (mathetes@erols.com)
Date: Sun Feb 15 1998 - 09:38:14 EST
Benjamin Raymond wrote:
> I found a number of instances in the GNT where MENEI is followed by a word
> beginning with a vowel (albeit only one other time with an omicron in 1 Cor
> 3:14) and plenty more in the Septuagint... with no nu (and no nu's is good
> news!). As for me, I've just never heard of a moveable nu used after this
> ending.
>
> 2 Questions:
>
> Would anyone be so kind as to remind me when the moveable nu is an option?
Was there ever a hard and fast rule in ancient Greek (whether Attic
or Koine) that *demanded* when to add the "nu" and when not to? I
have been under the impression that it was always an option.
Additionally, it seems that nu-movable was an option only for the
3rd person plural of the present active indicative (not the 3rd
singular).
If it's any help, the textbook for Attic Greek that I am currently
studying for class has this to say about the nu-movable:
"The third person plural of the present active indicative
may have nu added when the verb occurs at the end of a
clause or when it is followed by a word beginning with a
vowel (or in verse when it is more convenient to the poet to
add it)" ("Introduction to Attic Greek" by Donald J.
Mastronarde, pp. 57-58.
Interestingly enough, Mastronarde said nothing about the third person
*singular* (which was what your classmate brought up). So it would
seem (at least from the above) that the word MENEIN is the infinitive
of MENW.
Sola Fide,
Jeremy
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"Even so then, at this present time there is a remnant according to the
election of grace. And if by grace, then it is no longer of works; otherwise
grace is no longer grace. But if it is of works, it is no longer grace;
otherwise work is no longer work" (Romans 11:5-6, NKJV).
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