From: clayton stirling bartholomew (c.s.bartholomew@worldnet.att.net)
Date: Sun Feb 15 1998 - 05:57:51 EST
This subject has been discussed at length and Carl has submitted numerous
thought provoking posts on the topic, but my thinking is still rather muddy on
this.
In Acts 9:8a we have two verbs, an unambiguous aorist passive HGERQH and an
ambiguous middle/passive ANEWiGMENWN. Friberg's and Guillemete tag the
ambiguous participle *passive.*
My question is simple. Both of these verbs seem to involve the participation
of the subject in the action. I was under the impression that participation of
the subject in the action was a characteristic of the middle voice. So it
would seem that both of these verbs are functioning as middles. If this is the
case then an unambiguous morphological passive is not always passive in
function. Correct?
If this is the case then why do Friberg's and others tag the ambiguous
participle as passive?
As you can see, I am still confused on this issue.
-- Clayton Stirling Bartholomew Three Tree Point P.O. Box 255 Seahurst WA 98062
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