From: Cooper Greg (CooperG@wsdot.wa.gov)
Date: Tue Feb 17 1998 - 11:14:27 EST
I would like to ask for feedback on Mark 16:12 (realizing that some
manuscripts include those verses, some do not and some early Church
Father's quote them and others do not re: Bullinger, Lexicon and
Concordance, page iii).
What struck me was the apparent sudden change in Christ between verses
11
and 12. The Greek,…EPHANEROTHE EN hETERA MORPHE…, is translated in
Marshall's Interlinear Greek-English translation, page 216, as:…"he was
manifested in a different form…." Does this strike anyone like it did
me?
Would it not, perhaps , lend some insight into if and when and what
happened relative to an ascension(s)?
Zodhiates, in his Hebrew-Greek Study Bible, 1988 edition, page 1223,
uses
"appeared," rather than "manifested." And in his Bible Lexicon, 5319,
page
1737, states that this appearing by Christ involved divine revelation:
APOKALUPTO: "to remove a veil or covering exposing to open view what
was
before hidden" (Lexicon, 601, page 1667).
Bullinger, in his Lexicon and Concordance, page 59, states that this
appearing means: "to make manifest, make apparent, show forth."
What was Christ, IF I understand these sources correctly, wanting to
reveal/unveil for us by appearing in this specific way?
Gregory Lee Cooper?
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