From: Paul S. Dixon (dixonps@juno.com)
Date: Sun Feb 22 1998 - 21:14:33 EST
On Sun, 22 Feb 1998 17:12:18 -0600 Benjamin Raymond <braymond@ipa.net>
writes:
>Rereading John 1:9 again while reviewing for class, I stumbled over
>another oddity.
>
>If TO FWS is the subject of this periphrastic imperfect, why does the
>author use the masculine object AUTON in 10c? Is the author ascribing
>some masculine sense to TO FWS, or does this refer back to hO LOGOS
>somehow?
>
>Ben
Though TO QWS is the subject of the periphrastic participle in v. 9, this
does not mean it TO FWS cannot refer to hO LOGOS. It clearly does. The
gender of FWS is not determined by its referent, but by the word itself.
Hence, AUTON refers back to the masculine LOGOS.
Dr. Paul S. Dixon, Pastor
Wilsonville, Oregon
http://users.aol.com/dixonps
http://users.why.net/think/greek
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