From: Mark & Mary Markham (markhamm@topsurf.com)
Date: Wed Feb 11 1998 - 17:24:59 EST
If I understand the meaning of the word slander as used in Greek-- it can be
true info used negitively. Can anyone else confirm this understanding?
Mark
CBC
Heidelberg, Germany
-----Original Message-----
From: WFWarren@aol.com <WFWarren@aol.com>
To: Biblical Greek <b-greek@franklin.oit.unc.edu>
Date: Thursday, February 11, 1999 8:06 PM
Subject: Re: Luke 16:1-7 The clever agent
>
>In a message dated 2/10/99 9:29:47 PM, epe@phys.unsw.edu.au writes:
>
>>Luke 16:1 "There was a rich man who had an agent,
>>and hOUTOS DIEBLHQH AUTW hWS DIASKORPIZWN
>>TA hUPARCONTA AUTOU
>>DoesnÍt DIEBLHQH suggest false information i.e. slander?
>>Hence ñhe was slandered that he was squandering [the rich manÍs]
>>goods.î
>>Then v2 would mean the owner took it at face value and promptly
>>dismissed him without seeing the evidence.
>
>I've usually used the presence of DIASKORPIZWN to make the link between
this
>parable and that of Luke 15 in which the wayward son is said to have
>"DIESKORPISEN" (15:13) his goods. It would seem that the context in 16:1
>would lean against reading DIEBLHQH as slander or false information.
Albeit
>with a slight change of audience indicated in 16:1, no topic shift is
>indicated so that 16:1ff would be a continuation of examples to justify
Jesus'
>acceptance of the "tax collectors and sinners" when they attempt to correct
>their past ways.
>
>Paz,
>
>Bill Warren
>Landrum P. Leavell, II, Professor of New Testament and Greek
>Director of the Center for New Testament Textual Studies
>New Orleans Baptist Theological Seminary
>
>
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