From: E.D. Cabanne (watrlike@quiknet.com)
Date: Tue Mar 03 1998 - 01:51:58 EST
Is the phrase "the word of God" (with either rhema or logos) equated
anywhere in the entire Bible with "Scripture" (graphe)? I am asking a
strictly exegetical question here, as distinguished from a theological one.
So far I cannot see where such a connection is unequivocally sustainable by
exegetical means alone. This phrase (including "the word of the Lord")
seems to me to have at least primarily in most instances, if not totally in
every instance, a unique meaning distinct from association with written
scriptures.
I would be delighted to be shown where I am wrong here and to discuss the
few verses where this might be disputable, as well as to hear any other
enlightening comments.
.
E.D. Cabanne
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