From: clayton stirling bartholomew (c.s.bartholomew@worldnet.att.net)
Date: Wed Mar 04 1998 - 19:00:42 EST
Micheal Palmer wrote:
>
> Do any of you know of a place where the verb APOLEIPW appears in a context
> which marks it clearly as middle voice. Active voice examples are easy to
> find (2 Timothy 4:13, 20; Titus 1:5). I know of a few passive voice
> examples (Hebrews 4:6, 9; 10:26), but can't find any which are clearly
> middle. Are there any? What about examples outside the NT but in the same
> time period? How would you understand the meaning in the middle voice (if
> it does appear)?
>
Micheal,
Never trust the grammar tags without double checking. All the examples in my
first post were middle/passive in form. I decided to look them over and I
think 2Kings 10:21 and 2Mac. 13:23 look like passives, but Prov. 19:27 looks
like a keeper. 3Mac. 1:17 I am not sure about.
In Edward's favorite lexicon (LSJ, old version page 206, col 2, B), Herodotos
2.134 is listed as a middle with the gloss "bequeath to posterity".
You know it's late and I am in no mood to argue but at first glance Hebrews
4:6, 9; 10:26 don't look like the are clearly passives. I bet someone on this
list could build a case for one or more of them being middle.
-- Clayton Stirling Bartholomew Three Tree Point P.O. Box 255 Seahurst WA 98062
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