From: Benjamin Raymond (braymond@ipa.net)
Date: Wed Apr 22 1998 - 23:03:28 EDT
Hi folks,
Gosh, this list sure piles up when you can't read it every day!
Oh well... lots of good stuff to sift through.
I've a question if anyone is interested. In Mark 16:6 we find the
NEANISKOS saying IDE hO TOPOS to the women. All the other imperatives here
are in the plural, yet this is singular. On top of that, the following
object(?) is nominative.
Matthew seems to have altered this with the smoother IDETE TON TOPON, but
Mark's account remains nevertheless.
1. Why does the object (if it is indeed an object proper) take the
nominative in Mark? I understand this is not unknown in the NT (e.g., Mark
3:34), but it still seems rather strange to me.
2. Why does Mark use the singular imperative?
Thanks,
Ben
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
Benjamin Raymond
senior, Harding University School of Biblical Studies
braymond@ipa.net
HU Box 11871, 900 E Center
Searcy, AR 72149-0001
501-279-4820
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