From: Jeffrey B. Gibson (jgibson000@ameritech.net)
Date: Sat Apr 25 1998 - 20:07:39 EDT
I have noticed recently while consulting the commentaries on 1 Tim 6:10
that some commentators (e.g., J.N.D. Kelly) render APEPLANHQHSAN as
"have been led astray" while others (e.g., Dibelius/Greeven) render it
"have gone astray". Guthrie points out that the verb is passive, and
Kelly obviously takes it in this sense. But D/G and others obviously
give it an active sense. So which is it to be? And why?
Yours,
Jeffrey Gibson
(note new [but temporary] e-mail address}
jibson000@ameritech.netMail Administrator wrote:
This archive was generated by hypermail 2.1.4 : Sat Apr 20 2002 - 15:39:36 EDT