From: dalmatia@eburg.com
Date: Fri May 01 1998 - 13:28:54 EDT
Paul S. Dixon wrote:
>
> B-Greekers:
>
> Why is ELHLUQEI in Jn 7:30 pluperfect and not perfect, as is ELHLUQA in
> 7:28? Is this just a case where the perfect and pluperfect forms would
> be identical (if they were in the same person), but where the tenses are
> contextually derived (hOTI OUPW ELHLUQEI hH hWRA AUTOU)?
The tenses would seem to indicate relative [linear] time, and if the
ELHLUQEI were to follow HN, it would have had to have been in the
perfect ELHLUQA.
Simply put in English, 'His time had not yet arrived.' Which is
different from 'did not yet arrive', eh?
See John 3:24 for the pluperfect force of the perfect following HN,
where the force, [but not the translation!] is 'For John had not yet
been imprisoned.' [And NOT 'has not yet been'!]
George
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