From: Jim West (jwest@highland.net)
Date: Wed May 06 1998 - 15:11:18 EDT
At 02:03 PM 5/6/98 -0700, you wrote:
>"Where is the wise man? Where is the scribe? Where is the debator of
>this age?" (NASB)
>
>Why are these nouns usually translated with the definite article when it
>is lacking in the Greek? Does it have to do with the proper English
>idiom?
Yup.
>
>--
>"Eric S. Weiss"
>eweiss@gte.net
>http://home1.gte.net/eweiss/index.htm
>S.D.G.
>- - -
>Be skeptical of what you are about to hear when someone who hasn't had
>at least a year or two of biblical Greek and/or Hebrew says: "Now, in
>the original Greek (or Hebrew) it really says (or means) ...."
>- - -
>
>
>
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
Jim West, ThD
Quartz Hill School of Theology
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