From: dalmatia@eburg.com
Date: Fri May 08 1998 - 13:58:22 EDT
Williams, Wes wrote:
> > George wrote:
> >
> > So taken this way, it says "Before Abraham births" [or comes to be],
> > and without Abraham, it would read "Before birth", yes?
> >
> Dear George,
>
> Your exegesis of the adverbial temporal phrase PRIN ABRAAM GENESQAI is
> roughly equivalent to mine. My question is not what the phrase means,
> but in the sentence PRIN ABRAAM GENESQAI, EGW EIMI, which verb does the
> adverb PRIN modify? It cannot modify GENESQAI since GENESQAI itself is
> part of the adverbial phrase. And then, how does the phrase modify that
> verb?
Aaaah !!
Now I see your question. If the infinitive is being used as a noun,
there IS only one verb in this 5 word construction. And it then would
unfold "I AM [being] PRIOR [to the fact that] Abraham 'births'". And
I trust as well that you would like to derive a grammatic principle of
translation here as well. What fun!! Let me snooze on that one awhile
and see what hatches over a couple of days.
George Blaisdell
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