From: Trevor M Peterson (spedrson@juno.com)
Date: Wed Jun 24 1998 - 14:01:41 EDT
On Wed, 24 Jun 1998 13:15:04 -0400 "Carl W. Conrad"
<cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu> writes:
[snipped]
>
>Well, let me carry this one step further: I would question whether
>glossolalia could be described as LOGOI in any case; so far as I am
>aware,
>LOGOS always refers to articulate, intelligible speech in Greek; it
>hardly
>seems applicable to ecstatic speech that requires an interpreter to
>make it
>intelligible.
And I guess some of that question would get into whether Paul is refering
to ecstatic speech or to a normal, foreign language as seems to have been
in view in Acts 2. But to avoid that sidetrack and keep things in
context, the basis for inserting LOGOI was supposed to be v. 19, where
Paul says
QELW PENTE LOGOUS TWi NOI MOU LALHSAI, . . .
H MURIOUS LOGOUS EN GLWSSHi [LALHSAI].
Presumably, however he was using it here, there was no problem with
speaking LOGOUS in a tongue.
>
[snipped]
>
>Is this "classical Greek scholar" whom your friend cites endowed with
>a
>name and proper identity?
I don't recall anything being mentioned. "Scholar" was probably my term,
since he clearly views him as authoritative. He's a pesonal acquaintance
of some sort, apparently with decades of experience like yourself (or so
he says). That's partly why I wanted to bring this one to the list, so
that I could get some input from others with more experience than myself.
>I've probably published far too little to
>make a
>claim to be a "classical Greek scholar," but I have taught classical
>Greek
>for 40 odd years. If your friend deems Smyth's grammar sufficiently
>authoritative, he may check out #1267. "In the singular, TIS is used
>in a
>collective sense ..."
Thanks. I'll have to check that out and see if it bears passing along.
I doubt that it will make much difference to him, but it's worth a try.
Trevor Peterson
Adj. Prof. Bible/Theology
Washington Bible College
Lanham, MD
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