From: Larry Swain (swainl@rocky.edu)
Date: Tue Jun 30 1998 - 12:06:49 EDT
At 09:02 AM 6/30/1998, you wrote:
>At 11:07 6/29/98 -0500, Donald W Price wrote:
>>Why does the KJV (in Matt. 6:9) render the phrase "ho en tois ouranois"
>>as "our Father WHICH art in heaven" instead of "WHO art in heaven" as the
>>ASV put it?
>
>The reason is an English dialectal difference. While it is not
>appropriate today to refer to persons with the relative pronoun
>"which," it was acceptable and quite common to use "which" to
>refer to persons in Early Modern English.
As well as the fact that nearly 2 centuries separates the KJV and the
ASV........a whole lot of language change goin' on.
Larry Swain
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