Re: John 1:1 EN ARCH

From: dalmatia@eburg.com
Date: Tue Jul 07 1998 - 16:23:04 EDT


Edgar Foster wrote:
>
> ---dalmatia@eburg.com wrote:

> >The EGO EIMI usages that argue strongly in its favor, because of
> their power and their omnitemporal denotation.<
>
> Dear George,
>
> The use of EGW EIMI _per se_ does not mean that "omnitemporality" or
> "atemporality" is under discussion.

Hello Edgar ~

You are correct, of course. The point of the remark is that taken en
toto in John, EGO EIMI covers a whole lot of temporal ground, from
before Abraham to the ongoing present.

>The apostle utilizes EGW EIMI in
> John 1:20:
>
> EGW OUK EIMI hO XRISTOS

Indeed he does ~ The 'apostle' John is not hO CRISTOS.
>
> Then in John 9:9, the healed blind man exclaims:
>
> EGW EIMI

This one makes for an amazing puzzle ~ Why would he say that?? Could
he be simply stating the Source of his healing? Did Christ take him
into the ARCH for that healing, and was he speaking from there? These
are the kinds of questions that arise on my understanding of ARCH...

>
> Of course, one might say that the Gospel writer utilized EGW EIMI
> differently when delineating the enfleshed LOGOS. But, could this be
> an example of a priori thinking?

It probably is, insofar as I understand that term. The gospel of John
seems to require a 'backward thinking' approach, where one 'sees' what
is being talked about in fairly normal [fleshy] words, and then
interprets those words in spiritual terms. "Destroy this temple..."
for example refers to the temple that is Christ's body, which is in
this case explained in the text. So the a priori assumption of temple
being something other than an earthly temple is provided here. I have
taken this passage as a clue on how to read John.
>
> >When one is speaking from the ARCH, everything is present tense...
> Because of its non-temporal/omni-temporal character.<
>
> I wonder about this statement in view of the way John used ARCH
> elsewhere in his writings. This, coupled with the very lexicology of
> ARCH makes me doubt that it is either atemporal or omnitemporal (John
> 2:11; 8:44; 1 John 1:1; 2:7; 3:8).

Well, it does cover a lot of temporal ground, eh?

George

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Lisa Messmer..................ICQ# 5666415
George Blaisdell        dalmatia@eburg.com

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