From: Steve Amato (samato@cfa.harvard.edu)
Date: Wed Jul 08 1998 - 09:27:47 EDT
Larry wrote:
(Concerning 1John 3:6,9)
>I'm not sure that the Greek justifies such a translation. Having issued
>that caveat, however, I do think that in most cases, (NOT ALL) when the
>Biblical literature discusses sin and salvation they seem to me to mean
>what you call Lifestyle sense, a stative sense-state of grace or state of
>sin-rather than a punctiliar "sin" or offense being committed. I'll have
>to think on this a bit more though.
I don't see where a stative sense of "committing sin" would fit in 1John
3:6,9, as vs 10 says
" In this the children of God are manifest, and the children of the devil:
whosoever doeth not righteousness is not of God, neither he that loveth not
his brother."
Which surely is referring to outward behavior. But if "sinning" in vs 6,9
is referring to behavior, then what sort of behavior is it referring to?
Steve Amato
http://www.xensei.com/users/samato
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