Re: Participle as Finite Verb

From: clayton stirling bartholomew (c.s.bartholomew@worldnet.att.net)
Date: Sat Jul 11 1998 - 10:21:11 EDT

Carl W. Conrad wrote:

> If you had Codex Bezae and perhaps two other MSS of Acts, you might be in a
> better position to compare the Agamemnon of Aeschylus and the book of Acts,
> but it still wouldn't be a very fair comparison, inasmuch as Aeschylus (and
> his contemporary, Pindar) wrote the most difficult of Greek verse to be
> found in antiquity and Luke wrote one of the clearest of prose styles. I
> don't believe for a moment that Luke would have written a participle to
> stand in for a finite verb. No way (IMHO).
>

I am certainly glad that Carl didn't waffle on this. I hate waffling. "No way"
is the kind of response I understand.

BTW, Carl, I thought you used Agamemnon for your intro course in Greek
Tragedy. Perhaps I got this wrong. Is Agamemnon as difficult as Oedipus Rex?
After plowing through over 400 lines of Oedipus Rex I put it aside for a
while, decided it was a form of self abuse.

Thanks for the feed back.

Clay 

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