From: Jim West (jwest@Highland.Net)
Date: Tue Aug 18 1998 - 18:16:11 EDT
At 08:57 PM 8/18/98 -0500, you wrote:
> my question is, can
>one sense of APOLEIA be "annihilation" and what are some clear examples of
>this sense? Basically, what I am wondering is whether the word leans more
>toward destruction in the sense of ruin, destruction in the sense of
>annihilation, or can it run the whole range from ruin to annihilation?
>Roy Millhouse
>MA/NT cand.
Roy,
It may be an instructive exercise to look at the Vulgate in any particular
passage which interests you using the word <gk>apwleia</gk>. In general,
the Vulgate renders <gk>apwleia</gk> with either <lt>perditio</lt> or
<lt>interitus</lt>. The usefulness of the Vulgate as a very early
"Commentary" on the text cannot be overestimated. When one reads it, one
sees how some very early Christians understood their Bible.
<gk>apwleia</gk> is used in Mt 7:13, 26:8,
Mk 14:4
Jn 17:12
Ac 8:20
Rom 9:22
Phil 1:28, 3:19
2 th 2:3
I Tim 6:9
Heb 10:29
2 Pe 2:1, 3:7, 3:16
Rev 17:8, 11
It probably will surprise no one when I say that each of these verses must
be examined in context in order to understand how <gk>apwleia</gk> is used.
Best,
Jim
++++++++++++++++++++++++
Jim West, ThD
Adjunct Professor of Bible
Quartz Hill School of Theology
jwest@highland.net
++++++++++++++++++++++++
"es ist Schuld und VerhŠngnis aller Kirchen, dass sie zu viel Dogmatik und
zu wenig JŸngerschaft praktizieren" E. KŠsemann
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