From: Perry L. Stepp (plstepp@flash.net)
Date: Tue Aug 11 1998 - 10:04:35 EDT
Hello, all.
> The background context in which this passage is
> found is one that is dealing with the question of
> good order in the congregation. The (correct)
> alternative to whatever it is which the women are
> doing in the congregation is to ask their husbands
> their questions at home. This would suggest that
> what they were doing was breaching good order in
> the congregation by talking amongst themselves
> or asking questions of their husbands during the
> assembly. (Men and women sat separately in the
> assembly.)
A point of syntax: the prohibition uses the present infinitive (OU . . .
LALEIN). The argument that I've heard--and I've never checked it across the
NT, but the places where I've checked the argument it has stood up--is:
normally when an infinitive is used in a prohibition, the aorist infinitive
is used. Any time a present infinitive is used in a prohibition, there
seems to be an emphasis on continuing action.
Thus (the argument runs) the present OU . . . LALEIN implies something
outside of normal or acceptable speech, i.e., "they are not permitted to
talk excessively" or "they are not permitted to keep on chattering."
How does that argument wash?
PLStepp
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--George Will, 6 August 1998
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