Re: The word alone in Romans 3:28

From: Paul S. Dixon (dixonps@juno.com)
Date: Mon Aug 24 1998 - 14:29:07 EDT


On Mon, 24 Aug 1998 09:56:42 -0500 "Carl W. Conrad"
<cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu> writes:

<snip>

>I remember many years ago seeing a film that showed Luther reading
>this text in the Vulgate, where it is:
>
> "arbitramur enim iustificari hominem per fidem sine operibus
>legis"
>
>and he penned in the word "solam" above "fidem." I don't know whether
>the film had any historical or biographical authenticity, but certainly
>that version of the Latin 'per fidem solam' is reflected in his
translation
>"allein durch den Glauben."

How about if we understand Luther's inclusion of "solam" as his
epexegetical
note to "sine operibus legis"? This seems to make good sense, especially
if
we understand, as Luther might argue from the context, that faith and
works
are mutually exclusive, at least as far as justification is considered.

Paul Dixon

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