From: Carl W. Conrad (cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu)
Date: Fri Aug 28 1998 - 06:44:47 EDT
At 11:46 PM -0500 8/27/98, Kyle Dillon wrote:
>Normally, hOUTOS refers to an immediate antecedent. Does that mean that
>hOUTOS in 1 John 5:20 is referring to IHSOU CRISTWi, or does it refer to TON
>ALHQINON?
Well, I think that grammatically hOUTOS here can only refer to IHSOU
CRISTWi which immediately precedes it at the end of the preceding sentence.
Of course it is also true that this sentence makes an equation between
IHSOUS CRISTOS and hO ALHQINOS QEOS, so that it would be reasonable enough
to see a continuity of reference in the verse. Nevertheless, I think the
grammatical antecedent of hOUTOS can only be IHSOU CRISTOU.
Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics/Washington University
One Brookings Drive/St. Louis, MO, USA 63130/(314) 935-4018
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