From: yochanan bitan (ButhFam@compuserve.com)
Date: Sat Sep 05 1998 - 14:03:43 EDT
dear george,
thank you for answering. it appears that you may have misunderstood the
question.
if you read papyri from the turn of the era you will find Y and OI
interchanged fairly freely, but not with the other modern greek 'i' sounds.
The change you referred to probably took place later, nearer the 4th
century CE.
Eg. 'to the son' YIWI sometimes turns up as
OIEIWI but never EIOIWI
for the record my question dealt with a first century distinction of a
rounded high front vowel.
again, my question was, does anyone in northamerica use this?
or reworded in the negative: does everyone/most in northamerica ignore this
in their pronunciation? by choice or lack of acquaintance?
(ps: when i did classical greek we had to read Y with rounded high front
vowel but OI as the pre-hellenistic dipthong, outside of class we were free
to read with modern i=ei=h=y=oi, though nobody was trying the hellenistic
compromise Y=OI, I=EI, E=AI, O=W, H=H, OY=OY, A=A.)
erroso
randall buth
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