Re: Greek Pronunciation

From: Mark O'Brien (markus@upnaway.com)
Date: Thu Sep 10 1998 - 13:19:43 EDT


At 09:12 AM 9/9/98 +0100, Edgar Krentz wrote:
>Recentlyi Chrys Caragouinis send me a copy of his articler "The Error of
>Earsmus and un-Greek Pronunciations of Greek,"Filologia Neotestamentaria 8
>(1995) 151-185.
>
>I am curious. Has anyone else read his paper and written an evaluation of
>it? He concludes that the modern Greek pronunciation is the same as that of
>ancient Greek, going back to the fifth century BC. He deals with Allen's
>VOX GRAECA in passing on p. 183.

I actually recommended this article sometime ago during one of our regular
(or so it seems) threads on pronunciation... it is very interesting
reading, especially some of the historical info on Erasmus and his scheme
(which it is claimed was the result of a joke played on him). I found it
quite compelling (although perhaps not entirely convincing), and from a
textual criticism point of view, it has some things to commend it. I think
I forwarded a copy to Ward Powers... he may have read it as well and may
have some comment.

This article actually caused me to experiment for a while with the modern
pronunciation scheme whilst reading my NT, and I must say that although one
does lose the ability to differentiate between many of the vowel sounds,
the language does suddenly seem to "live" a little (a personal observation,
of course). It seems to take on the sound and feeling of a real language,
rather than what I have always felt was a very artificial flavour. I still
sometimes read the text aloud to myself using the modern pronunciation
scheme, although old habits die hard and I do tend to use the Erasmian
system when conversing with others about the text... perhaps that's a
happy medium between the two?

Regards,

M.

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