From: Carl W. Conrad (cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu)
Date: Wed Oct 14 1998 - 08:21:28 EDT
At 1:04 PM -0500 10/13/98, clayton stirling bartholomew wrote:
>This question got buried during the b-greek down time. Thought I would give it
>one more try.
>
>**********
>
>James gives a little speech in Acts 15 where he quotes from Amos 9:12. There
>are a number of problems with this passage and I will ignore all of them
>except for a question about the LXX rendering of the relative pronoun:
>
>ACTS 15:17 TA EQNH EF hOUS EPIKEKLHTAI TO ONOMA MOU EP AUTOUS . . .
>
>
>My question is very specific. Why does the LXX render the MT relative ASHER as
>EF hOUS? Note that the preposition in EF hOUS is somewhat redundant with EP
>AUTOUS. The only question I have is why is the preposition used in EF hOUS
>when the relative in the MT stands alone?
>
>I did a quick search in the LXX and found that this is quite common. See Gen
>28:13 LXX where we have:
>
>hH GH EF hHS . . . EP AUTHS
I recall coming over this same question years ago when I took just enough
Hebrew to become dangerous. The verse wherein I first noticed this was:
Gen. 1:12 ... KARPON hOU TO SPERMA AUTOU EN AUTWi
This represents MT (pardon my transliteration): ... PRI ASHER ZAR'O B'O
The understanding of this that I came to was that the Hebrew relative
pronoun was normally converted into the appropriate form of the Greek
relative pronoun, with the right gender, number, and case--AND also the
Hebrew preposition with pronominal suffix (here B'O) got translated
literally into the Greek. The construction comes up, as you note, Clay,
repeatedly, so that one may understand this as a distinct conversion
strategy for relative clauses translated from the Hebrew Bible into the LXX.
Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics/Washington University
One Brookings Drive/St. Louis, MO, USA 63130/(314) 935-4018
Home: 7222 Colgate Ave./St. Louis, MO 63130/(314) 726-5649
cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu OR cconrad@yancey.main.nc.us
WWW: http://www.artsci.wustl.edu/~cwconrad/
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