Re: BAPTISMOS

From: dd-1@juno.com
Date: Thu Jan 14 1999 - 10:23:59 EST


Mark and Edward, Denny Diehl here

Thanks for all the leg work on BAPTISMOS. As pointed out:

>West Saxon I (c. 990) uses the term "baptista" of John the Baptist
>(Matt. 3.1 and Luke 9.19); and at John 3.22 we have "baptizabat":
>"...eius in iudeam terram. & ibi demorabatur cum eis & baptizabat".
>But as Stephen pointed out, the word for baptism is fulluht, e.g.
>Matt. 3.7: "SoÝlice ßa he geseh manega ß¾ra sunder-halgena &
>ß¾ra riht-wisendra to his fulluhte cumende."
>
>So too West Saxon II (c. 1175), which does not even have John as
>"baptista" in Matt. 3.1 but rather "fulluhtere"

Any of the BAPT words would be transliterations from Greek
BAPTISMOS (and other forms). But what about "fulluht"? Was
that a translation of BAPTISMOS? And if a translation, what did
it mean? Thanks again for the help.
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