From: WFWarren@aol.com
Date: Thu Feb 11 1999 - 22:17:52 EST
In a message dated 2/11/99 6:55:09 PM, mauros@iol.ie writes:
>At 23:24 11/02/98 +0100, Mark wrote:
>>If I understand the meaning of the word slander as used in Greek-- it
>can be
>>true info used negitively. Can anyone else confirm this >understanding?
>
>According to BAGD,
>
>DIABALLW means to bring charges w. hostile intent,
>
>either falsely and slanderously (BGU 1040, 22; POxy. 900, 13; 4 Macc 4:1;
>Jos., Ant. 7, 267)
>
>or justly (Hdt. 8, 22, 3; Thu. 3, 4, 4; Aristoph., Thesm. 1169;
>Philostratus, Ep. 37; PTebt. 23, 4; Da 3:8; 2 Macc 3:11; Jos., Ant. 12,
>176)
>
>and it helpfully points to the dative AUTWi as in:
>(dat. as Hdt. 5, 35; Pla., Rep. 8, 566b al.;
>
>BTW, the _unjust_ example from Josephus above relates to David, and the
>fact that
>>> Now he had been unjustly calumniated to the king by Ziba, his steward.
><<
>
>whereas the _just_ use of the term is when:
>>> Joseph accused the bidders, as having agreed together to estimate the
>value of the taxes at too low a rate; and he promised that he would himself
>give twice as much for them;<<
Let me clarify a point in my earlier post. I would see the use in 16:1 as
being an actual problem or "just" charge against the steward, not simply
slander in the sense of a charge that might not have been justified. The
reason for taking that option on the usage of the term is due to the link I
see with the context in Luke 15.
Paz,
Bill Warren
Landrum P. Leavell, II, Professor of New Testament and Greek
Director of the Center for New Testament Textual Studies
New Orleans Baptist Theological Seminary
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