From: Michael Abernathy (mabernat@cub.kcnet.org)
Date: Mon Apr 19 1999 - 15:25:48 EDT
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<DIV><FONT size=2>I am interested in the debate I found over the legitimacy of
the divine passive in some of the recent entries. But I was a little
confused by something. Most of the debate seemed to center around whether
the Greek language influenced the Jews enough for them to utilize this
convention. Blass and Debrunner in their <EM>A Greek Grammar of the New
Testament and Other Early Christian Literature</EM> attribute the origin of the
divine passive to the Aramaic. In fact, they claim it is typical for the
Aramaic to use the passive for the actions of divine beings. My knowlege
of Aramaic is insufficient to comment on this. Can someone enlighten
me?</FONT></DIV></BODY></HTML>
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