From: George Blaisdell (maqhth@hotmail.com)
Date: Sun May 09 1999 - 14:35:12 EDT
<x-flowed>
>From: John Oaklands
>Hi
Hello John ~
>How is EDWKEN understood in John 5:26? Does this refer to the
>incarnation as of John 1:4 EN AUTWi ZWH HN or, as some have even
>suggested, to the resurrection? How does EDWKEN make sense in the
>light of John 1:4? I even have trouble with the translation
>*granted*--does any one else?
hWSPER GAR hO PATHR ECEI ZWHN EN hEAUTW
hOUTWS KAI TWi hUIWi EDWKEN ZWHN ECEIN EN hEAUTW
For just as the Father is having life in Himself
Thusly even to the Son He gives life in Himself.
I think it does refer to EN AUTWi ZWH HN in 1:4, although I have always
understood 1:4 to be pre or pan incarnational ~ That is, a permanent
attribution of hO LOGOS, who did incarnate.
Here he simply seems to be attributing the giving of His life that is in
Himself to the Father, who is the source of His having it in himself.
The HN of 1:4 I have taken to mean 'has always been and continues to be and
will continue to be' ~ At least in terms or our experience of time. HN
places Him 'prior' to ARCH [beginning]. As God's Word in the creation, His
source is God, who "EDWKEN" to Him life.
There are surely ressurrectional implications to all this, but this little
passage does not seem to address them. The rest of this section, however,
clearly does. [5:21, 28-9, etc.]
Am I addressing your question?
George Blaisdell
Roslyn, WA
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