What, if anything, is the significance of the present tense
of the infinitive in 1 Cor 15:25: "dei gar auton
basileuin"?
Does the present infinitive after dei say anything about the time
of the reign relative to the time of writing?
George
George A. Goolde
Professor of Bible and Theology
Southern California Bible College & Seminary
George
George A. Goolde
Professor, Bible & Theology
Southern California Bible College & Seminary
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