Neuter with masculine

From: Donald L. Shaffer (dshaf45917@aol.com)
Date: Mon Jun 28 1999 - 21:34:06 EDT

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Can someone explain why the neuter form of ãoneä is used with the masculine
ãGodä in Matt. 19:17?

Mark 19:17
And he said unto him, Why callest thou me good? [there is] none good but
one, [that is], God: but if thou wilt enter into life, keep the
commandments.

Another verse is John 8:17
... we have one father, God.

ãOneä is neuter, but both ãfatherä and ãGodä are masculine. Is this
breaking rules of Greek grammar? Am I missing something?

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