From: Edgar Foster (questioning1@yahoo.com)
Date: Sat Jul 10 1999 - 22:42:30 EDT
--- Carlton Winbery <winberyc@popalex1.linknet.net> wrote:
>I agree with Carl's answer. The key to a obj/subj
genitive is that it modifies a noun of action. Most nouns of action
also have cognate verbs.<
>Concerning the "peace of God", if you understand
this to be the "peace that God Gives" then God in the genitive would be
a genitive (ablative) of
source in the sense of the peace from God. Peace
however is not a noun of action.<
Carlton,
Your point is well taken and I have no disagreement with you or Carl
about subjective/objective genitives needing verbal nouns. Where I'm
confused is that Carl's comment implied that since EIRHNH was not a
verbal noun in Phil. 4:7, then it is not meaningful to speak of the
phrase hH EIRHNH TOU QEOU as a subjective or an objective genitive.
Maybe I misunderstood his comment, but that's what I derived from it.
Carl's observation led me to question how we determine whether or not
a noun is verbal. It also made me wonder why some grammarians describe
it the phrase as objective/subjective if there is no verbal noun in the
passage.
Secondly, where you the verbal noun be in Mark 2:26?
TOUS ARTOUS THS PROQESEWS EFAGEN
Young says that PROQESEWS is the verbal noun denoting the action of the
priest in this verse.
I appreciate your input,
Edgar
===
Edgar Foster
Classics Major
Lenoir-Rhyne College
http://www.egroups.com/list/greektheology/
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