From: Joe A. Friberg (JoeFriberg@alumni.utexas.net)
Date: Wed Jul 28 1999 - 14:49:28 EDT
> -----Original Message-----
> From: Ray Clendenen [mailto:rclende@lifeway.com]
> Sent: Wednesday, July 28, 1999 10:31 AM
> On what basis would one determine whether in Luke 1:63 it is better to
> translate "His name is John" or "John is his name"?
The propositional meaning of the two English alternatives you have given is
identical. The difference is that "His name is John" is the basic
(unmarked) word order, while "John is his name" adds a bit of salience to
'John' by fronting it. This salience could be for emphasis,
surprise/emotive, etc.
Does the Greek syntax justify this? I'm not sure. The context "and they
all marveled" may provide some support for the added salience, however.
Joe Friberg
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