From: C. E. Core (ccinc@surfree.com)
Date: Wed Aug 11 1999 - 16:03:09 EDT
Thanks Greg for the information, I will store this for latter reference. The
first time I heard of Sharp's rule was while I was at Bible college and my
Professor was explaining it to us in english terms and telling us that there are
225 usage's of this is the scriptures with no exceptions. I am learning from
this list that Gk. is like everything else I've studied, that there are varying
opinions and I need to soak it all in. I am self taught in Gk. and I am able to
read and write it, but have a very limited vocabulary and even less knowledge of
the grammar; my reason for asking for opinions on grammars.
It would seem that if given the rules of Hebrew grammar are used properly
and they produce the action that Sharp's rule identifies, and the translation to
the Gk. preserves what is being said in the Hebrew, then we would have Sharp's
rule in the translated Gk. To say otherwise would seem to indicate that there is
not a construction in the Hebrew that creates this action. Does that seem right
to you?
BTW in the message that was sent to you and Richard there was the Gk. text sent
in it, was it preserved or did in turn to html ?
Thanks again
in Christ -chris
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