From: Edgar Foster (questioning1@yahoo.com)
Date: Sun Aug 15 1999 - 18:54:23 EDT
Dear B-Greekers,
In a commentary I've recently been consulting by James M. Scott, the
commentator writes:
"The meaning of _we have_ has been the subject of considerable debate.
It has gone unnoticed, however, that in conditional sentences having
EAN (if) + the aorist subjunctive in the protasis and the present
indicative of ECHW (have) in the apodosis, the latter expresses a
possession that an individual already has had (or not had) all along
(cf. 1 John 2:1; Matt. 5:46; John 6:53), not just reception immediately
consequent upon the action of the protasis" (2 Corinthians: New
International Biblical Commentary. James Scott. 127).
I wonder what members of this list think about this observation. I have
generally taken EAN and ECOMEN in 2 Cor. 5:2 as "If . . . then we are
to have." Conversely, Scott says that we (believers) already have the
"house from God." Its a fascinating argument and one that I am
extremely curious about.
Regards,
Edgar
===
Edgar Foster
Classics Major
Lenoir-Rhyne College
http://www.egroups.com/list/greektheology/
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