Re: Concerning Genesis 1:16

From: Dan Ebert (dellbert@buckeyeinternet.com)
Date: Mon Aug 23 1999 - 18:11:09 EDT

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<DIV>Hi Carl:</DIV>
<BLOCKQUOTE
style="BORDER-LEFT: #000000 solid 2px; MARGIN-LEFT: 5px; PADDING-LEFT: 5px"> I
 think I see what you mean. In our text: KAI EPOIHSEN hO QEOS TOUS DUO
 FWSTHRAAS TOUS MEGALOUS TON FWSTHRA TON MEGAN EIS ARCAS THS hHMERAS KAI TON
 FWSTHRA TON ELASSW EIS ARCAS THS NUKTOS KAI TOUS ASTERAS the phrase
 EIS ARCAS is followed,in the first instance by the genitive THS hHMERAS and
 in the second instance by THS NUKTOS. Unquestionably these genitives are
 dependent on the first and second instance of ARCAS respectively. And now
 let me note that your question originally raised for me the further question
 why the LXX reads EIS ARCAS with an accusative plural for the Hebrew
 L'MeMSHeLeth, where the construct-noun seems rather to be singular. Could
 the LXX translator have interpreted the Hebrew text and conveyed it as EIS
 ARCAS as "for beginnings of day" and "for beginnings of
 night"? I'm not sure what the right answer to this question is
 and I'd like to see other opinions: why is ARCAS plural and does the plural
 imply a plurality of "principalities" or "governances"?
 At any rate, these genitives do indeed depend upon ARCAS. If, on the
 one hand, ARCAS is taken to mean "beginnings," then THS hHMERAS
 and THS NUKTOS will be ordinary adnominal genitives, but if taken to mean
 "governances," then they will have to be "objective"
 genitives dependent upon the verbal notion (ARCEIN) in the noun
ARCAS.</BLOCKQUOTE>
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<BLOCKQUOTE
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 It may be significant to note that among the times "arche" is
 used to designate "ruler" in the NT (which numbers 11 times, I
 think), 10 of those occurences the word appears in the plural or is
 signified to be understood as a plural by the word "every" or
 "all" along with it. The 11th time (Luke 20:20) it is used with a
 'genitive' phrase and appears to be PART of that which is signified by the
 genitive.
 I have no way of finding out how many times "arche" is used in
 the LXX to designate "ruler" and whether or not it appears in the
 plural then as well, but it would be interesting to know.
 Thanks,
 Dan E. Carl W. Conrad Department of
 Classics, Washington University Summer: 1647 Grindstaff Road/Burnsville,
 NC 28714/(828) 675-4243 cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu WWW:
 http://www.artsci.wustl.edu/~cwconrad/ </BLOCKQUOTE></BODY></HTML>

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