From: Carlton Winbery (winberyc@popalex1.linknet.net)
Date: Mon Aug 30 1999 - 15:10:53 EDT
At 11:30 AM -0500 8/30/99, Guy Lipkins wrote:
>Pondering a question for a possible upcoming article; Is the Septuaginta
>"authoritative" or simply "accommodative" or both. I did a research paper
>on Gen.12:1-3 "The Call of Abraham" employing the Septuaginta (as my Hebrew
>is virtually nil. My professor gave me an "A" but,in his comments, he
>stated; "though your exposition, application and exegegis was excellent, I
>questioned the validity/accuracy of your use of the LXX,to stress your
>position. I would be more comfortable had you used a "hebrew based help"
>such as "Keil & Delitzsch" or "Theological Dictionary of the Old
>Testament". My question is, If the LXX is the Bible that Jesus used, was
>it authoritative and binding, or did He merely use it to accommodate the
>"Hebraically Challenged" populous. Your comments and thoughts will be
>greatly appreciated.
>
I've often said to NT Students, "If you are not reading Greek, you are not
reading Scripture; you are reading a translation of Scripture." I would say
the same thing about the OT but concerning reading Hebrew.
Dr. Carlton L. Winbery
Foggleman Professor of Religion
Louisiana College
winbery@andria.lacollege.edu
winberyc@popalex1.linknet.net
Ph. 1 318 448 6103 hm
Ph. 1 318 487 7241 off
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