1 Cor 14:34 -- LALEIN

From: David Roe (d.roe@t-online.de)
Date: Wed Sep 08 1999 - 11:11:39 EDT


Greetings B-Greeks,

I'm a baby-Greek who has appreciated lurking the past few weeks. I
hesitate to solicit help, being unlikely able to return it, and I
hesitate to pose this particular case because of the perhaps
strongly-differing theological views on it. Never-the-less...

1 Cor 14:34

AhI GUNAIKES EN TAIS EKKLHSIAIS SIGATWSAN OU GAP EPITREPETAI AUTAIS
LALEIN...

I interpret the infinitive present tense LALEIN as meaning "be talking,"
and not as "talking." What tense would Paul have used if he had meant to
forbid any talking/speaking?

Thankful for your help,

David

D. W. Roe
Rheinland-Pfalz, Germany

---
B-Greek home page: http://sunsite.unc.edu/bgreek
You are currently subscribed to b-greek as: [cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu]
To unsubscribe, forward this message to leave-b-greek-329W@franklin.oit.unc.edu
To subscribe, send a message to subscribe-b-greek@franklin.oit.unc.edu


This archive was generated by hypermail 2.1.4 : Sat Apr 20 2002 - 15:40:38 EDT