From: dixonps@juno.com
Date: Fri Oct 01 1999 - 11:42:22 EDT
For more on this see my article on negative inference fallacies at:
Paul Dixon
.
On Fri, 1 Oct 1999 08:35:40 -0700 "Jim Poulsen" <jp@accglobal.net>
writes:
> I don't want to engage a discussion on divorce and remarriage, but I
> thought
> this Greek translation that someone sent me was a little off the
> wall.
>
> Carson, in EBC takes 5 pages to discuss alternative interpretations
> of Matt
> 19:9 but doesn't offer this suggestion.
>
> The only other parallel I could find is in 1 Tim 5:19, where MN EPI
> precedes
> two or three witnesses and seems to have the same force as Matt
> 19:9.
>
> Any comments ?
>
> --- Jim Poulsen
>
>
> >With regard to the book, the reference is B. Ward Powers,
> "Marriage and
> > Divorce, The New Testament Teaching" (Concord, NSW, Australia:
> Family
> > Life Movement in Australia, 1987), p.175.
> > The quote reads:
> > "The new piece of information is this: in the so-called exceptive
> > clause, "except for porneia," the word "except" is a
> mistranslation.
> > There is no word "except" in the Greek text of this verse. The
> word
> > which occurs here is MH, the ordinary word for "not." It occurs
> more
> > than a thousand times in the New Testament, and not once is it
> > translated "except" - except in this one place. There are numerous
> > places in the New Testament, however, where one can find a
> grammatical
> > parallel to MH EPI PORNEIA, the phrase that we have here, i.e. a
> phrase
> > introduced by MH. Some examples: Matthew 26:5//Mark 14:2; Luke
> 13:14;
> > John 13:9; John 18:40. They are rendered "Not during the
> festival," "Not
> > on the sabbath day," "Lord, not my feet only," "Not this man, but
> > Barabas." Why then in Matthew 19:9 should the normal word for
> "not" be
> > rendered as "except"? The phrase is NOT stating an exception; it
> is
> > simply a negative phrase, "not for porneia."
>
>
>
>
> ---
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