From: Steven Craig Miller (scmiller@www.plantnet.com)
Date: Tue Oct 26 1999 - 11:45:10 EDT
<x-flowed>To: Jim West,
<< In the Hebrew NT I happen to have the greek term kaqhghths is translated
'moreh' here. It sets me to pondering, is it possible that the author is
here suggesting that the leader of the Qumran community, like the "rabbis"
and "fathers" should not be viewed as authoritative (in such a way that
their authority eclipses Jesus's). I.e., were there folk in the early
Church who did, in fact, follow rabbis, fathers, and "righteous teachers"
and thus the author of the Gospel writes to curb the effect of their
authority? >>
My Hebrew NT also has the Hebrew "moreh" for the Greek KAQHGHTHS. But I'm
not for sure I understand your problem. BAGD, for KAQHGHTHS, gives
"teacher," and BDB (p. 435), for "moreh," also gives "teacher." Wouldn't
the simplest explanation be that the translator saw the two terms as
roughly synonymous?
-Steven Craig Miller
Alton, Illinois (USA)
scmiller@www.plantnet.com
"There are no ultimate sources of knowledge. Every source, every suggestion
is welcome; and every source, every suggestion, is open to critical
examination" (Karl Popper, "Conjectures and Refutations: The Growth of
Scientific Knowledge," 1963:27).
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