From: Rodney J. Decker (rdecker@bbc.edu)
Date: Wed Oct 27 1999 - 07:43:53 EDT
In re. to the famous Johannine comma, someone pointed out to me recently
that "Calvin says it was in the best MSS in his day." (Implying, I suspect
[based on his follow up question], some sinister conspiracy that has
destroyed all those MSS since that time! :) So I checked Calvin's comm. on
the passage, and sure enough, he says: "as I see that it is found in the
best and most approved *copies,* I am inclined to receive it as the true
reading" (ad loc., my emphasis). Calvin's editor has a note that he
suspects Calvin to be referring to *printed editions,* not to Greek MSS
(1855 ed. by John Owen). That would certainly make sense given that it was
included in the 3d, 4th, & 5th editions of Erasmus and, so far as I know,
most (all?) the later editions based on Erasmus (Stephanus and Bezae at
least). So, my question: is the editor's suggestion a viable explanation?
Is there anything to be gained from checking the word that Calvin used in
his original (I presume, Latin? though it could have been French, I
suppose)? I.e., does the word the Owen translated as "copies" have a
technical reference? (This is, I suppose, best suited for the txt. crit.
list, but I'm not subscribed there, and it does relate to the Greek text.)
Thanks for any info,
Rod
****************************************************
Rodney J. Decker, Th.D. Baptist Bible Seminary
Assoc. Prof./NT PO Box 800, Clarks Summit, PA 18411
rdecker@bbc.edu http://faculty.bbc.edu/rdecker/
The *Resources for NT Study* site is accessible at:
http://faculty.bbc.edu/rdecker/rd_rsrc.htm
****************************************************
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