From: Jonathan Robie (jwrobie@mindspring.com)
Date: Fri Nov 26 1999 - 07:30:59 EST
<x-flowed>At 02:26 AM 11/26/99 +0100, RobertP wrote:
>
>How to understand expression from 1 Cor. 7,1 KALON ANTHRWPOU...?
Is there a textual variant that says KALON ANQRWPOU? My text says KALON
ANQRWPWi. I think it is easier to understand if you read the entire phrase,
which I read as follows:
KALON (ANQRWPWi (GUNAIKOS MH hAPESQAI))
it is good (for a man (a woman not to touch))
>1. KALON it is neutral gendre and it should be translated as The Good (
>a good thing) or it is so like in classical poetry where KALON is used
>in the meanning of adverb KALWS (well). For example I read that Homer
>uses KALWS very seldom (Il.18,570; Od. 1,155) and KALON in the meanning
>of KALWS very often.
I'm not really up on classical Greek, but I think you are right here.
>2. Why in this sentence there are'nt ESTIN?
The Greek doesn't really need it, but you can insert it without changing
the meaning, I think:
KALON ESTIN (ANQRWPWi (GUNAIKOS MH hAPESQAI))
>Couldn't be so that this expressions is only typical for greeks ways of
>expressions ?
I'm not sure what you are asking - in English or German, we would expect
the ESTIN, but in Greek, it is very common for it to be "missing" - it
isn't really missing as far as the Greek speaker is concerned, but it sure
seems like it is missing to you and me.
Jonathan
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