From: Steve Puluka (spuluka@hotmail.com)
Date: Sun Dec 05 1999 - 06:28:32 EST
<x-flowed>>James Maeser
>
>I wonder if this is another one of John's "solecisms" where he is carrying
>over the exact grammatical forms to signal OT allusions. Beale's The Book
>of Revelation (NIGTC) argues that many Daniel allusions in Revelation are
>intentional and that Daniel is a framework for the entire book. If the
>anarthrous form in a similar sense is also found in Daniel and Psalms that
>may explain John's use of it here.
This is a pretty simple phrase. I think one must be very careful here to
insure that these "allusions" to Daniel are not simply part of the literary
genre of apocalyptic literature. You would have to make a complete study of
the many exta-biblical examples that have come down to us. The Old Testament
examples are not a large enough corpus to make this determination. .
Does anyone know if the Pseudoepigrapha is available in an electronic format
for this type of search?
Steve Puluka
Adult Education Instructor
Byzantine Catholic Archeparchy of Pittsburgh
http://arrive.at/byzantinecatholic
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