From: Numberup@worldnet.att.net
Date: Sat Dec 11 1999 - 13:54:10 EST
I find it difficult to follow this reasoning. In John's Gospel account of Jesus giving the Spirit, it mentions nothing about bread and wine. (20:22) "After that," it speaks of Jesus taking bread and fish (21:13), not bread and wine. One could perhaps build some symbolism on the fish (IXQUS).
I agree with you (and L&N) that tradition and the Synoptics favors "was handed over" to the arresting authorities as the sense that PAREDIDOTO 1 Cor 11:23 should be understood. Though that "handing over" resulted in the ultimate action described in Isaiah 53, according to Christian belief, apart from other corroborating textual or traditional evidence, I see no intrinsic or exegetical mandate in the grammar to make PAREDIDOTO apply to a night after Christ's resurrection.
Solomon Landers
Memra Institute for Biblical Research
http://www.memrain.org
.
"Carl W. Conrad" wrote:
> I have recently been contacted by a "lurker" newly subscribing from "down under" and posed a knotty complex of problems centering around 1 Corinthians 11:23 and particularly the verb PAREDIDOTO there. If he wishes to enter into the discussion on his own, well and good, but the problems to be dealt with are fundamentally concerning the Greek, its grammar, and the range of possible meanings in this particular context. Let me say a bit, however, about what is at stake in the questions posed to me. This gentleman is convinced, on grounds that are fully satisfying to him (although I don't find them persuasive myself) that the Eucharist/Lord's Supper was instituted on Easter night by the risen Jesus in the company of the disciples.....
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